The "Have Your Random NBA Question Answered" Thread

He clearly switched his pivot foot before going up. *shrug*

There was no pivot established until he turned with the ball after catching it.

After the landing, which established the right foot as his pivot foot.

How did that establish his right foot as pivot?

It touched the ground first.

Can you find me some video with the angle from the scorers table? It looks like the same time or so small of difference that it's practically the same time from that gif.

And then we factor in Kobe shoving him in the back...

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=fHStMD-F3uQ

Doubt there's a different angle, but watch this in full screen, and I think it's pretty clear. You hear a nice tap-tap.


edit: also gotta love Marv's "foot on the line" comment.

It's so quick and because of the way he lands that one comes down before the other. Plus he's sticking out the left foot (and jumping that way) as it looks like he intended to spin that way the entire time he was catching it. I don't see how you can force him to land, adjust the entire weight/direction of his body and then use his right foot which is out of position as his pivot just because of a split-second difference in the way he landed partly due to Kobe's positioning.

I think your pivot is established only after both your feet touch the ground first. After both your feet are on your ground, you are allowed to pick one foot off the ground and the other remains your pivot.

I can understand the argument that it's Kobe's fault he had to land with one foot first. But that shouldn't really negate any rule violation that follows in my opinion.
It doesn't really look like Kobe had that much of an effect on him if you watch it real time, but that may just be me.

If you were the ref and you had the chance to watch the tape over and over again, would you just let them play on? Call a foul on Kobe for cutting under him?


My main question was if the move we see here, right foot first to touch the ground, maybe taking the defender out of the equation, is technically a travel.

You can't blatantly land on one foot, then bring the other down and switch to it. I just think in this situation it's so quick and happens so often you can't really call it. The ref won't even notice and process the millisecond difference while watching the entire play. Plus you get leeway when transitioning into a shot. A lot of regular jumpers some players take you can theoretically call traveling on.

Decide based on which nba.com explanation you prefer:

If a player has one foot on the floor or lands with one foot first to the floor, he may only pivot with that foot.

b. A player who receives the ball while he is progressing or upon completion of a dribble, may use a two-count rhythm in coming to a stop, passing or shooting the ball.
The first count occurs:
(1) As he receives the ball, if either foot is touching the floor at the time he receives it.
(2) As the foot touches the floor, or as both feet touch the floor simultane- ously after he receives the ball, if both feet are off the floor when he receives it.
The second occurs:
(1) After the count of one when either foot touches the floor, or both feet touch the floor simultaneously.
c. A player who comes to a stop on the count of one may pivot, using either foot as the pivot foot.
d. A player who comes to a stop on the count of two, with one foot in advance of the other, may pivot using only the rear foot as the pivot foot.
e. A player who comes to a stop on the count of two, with neither foot in advance of the other, may use either foot as the pivot foot.

It looks like you could go with c.

Alright.

BTW, "d" and "e" would be moves that aren't allowed on collegiate level, right? Like pivoting after a jump stop. Or am I confusing something here?

Looks like a pretty clear one-two to me, although I saw it as the gif was loading (really slowly) first, so I know what I'm looking for. Would probably be a bit different seeing it at full speed first.

It's technically a travel, but it's close enough that it'll never be called.

Jabari Parker or Andrew Wiggins?

Who's your next "I told you so" guy?

That is not what this thread is for. You should know that by now.

Thought wasn't worth the thread but wanted to know what you guys think on these two would-be-next LeBawns.

If you poke the ball from an opponent's hands towards your teammate, who gets credit for the steal?

Depends on the scorer, but I believe that usually your teammate will.

I have a couple of questions:

1. Now that Kobe has been lost to injury, the Lakers signed goldilocks back. If they make it, is he eligible to play in the playoffs? Because he was in the roster before they waived him early in the season.

2. If the Lakers sign Chris Douglas-Roberts, is he eligible to play in the playoffs? Only because he was with the team in the pre-season roster.

I am guessing that question number 1 is a yes, and 2 is a no. But I could not find a better resource online. Larry Coon's CBA FAQ did not provide better information regarding this.

No. (YES)
No. (Yes)

Waiving a player means you give up any rights you have over that player. So they become free agents. Same with players whose non-rookie contracts run out, they become free agents. And the deadline for signed free agents to be included in playoff rosters had ended.

EDIT: I stand corrected. Goldlockwhatevs is eligible to be included in the playoff roster. Even though he's a free agent he's basically a D-League pickup since he's been playing in there this season. Seems like active D-Leaguers are eligible for playoff rosters if they are 'called up' by a NBA team.

The Lakers signed G Andrew Goudelock in time for the second-year pro to be in uniform. Goudelock was Los Angeles' second-round pick in 2011, and he showed enough scoring promise in 40 games of action last season to earn the nickname "Mini Mamba" from Lakers fans. He was waived in training camp last fall and spent this season with two NBA D-League teams. Goudelock would be eligible for the postseason if the Lakers make it.

Andrew nails it.

Last edited by shadowgrin on Mon Apr 15, 2013 11:02 pm, edited 2 times in total.

As I understand it, they should both be eligible for the Playoffs as both were free agents before March 1st. Players released after March 1st can sign with other teams before the season ends, but they're not eligible to play in the postseason.

Could some one explain the differences of 1st round and 2nd round draft contract, plz? Why M.Teague have the lowest salary contract in 1st round while he's not #30 pick? And why in 2nd round there's so many type of contract, like Parson get 4 years, some get 1, some get 2, some get 3. Who become restrict and unrestrict FA when contract run out,etc... My information about these draft contract is a total mess now.

More info on that:
http://www.cbafaq.com/salarycap.htm#Q48

Can someone explain the Clippers' situation? They won their division, and were guaranteed to finish fourth, but needed to win today for home court? What?

It must be a tiebreaker over Memphis.

The higher seed does not automatically get home court advantage. That is decided through other means.

EDIT: Okay, it's because they won the season series with Memphis. Had they not won this game and lost, they'd be 55-27 and the 4th seed due to winning the division. But Memphis could finish 56-26 and get home court advantage.

Can someone explain the Clippers' situation? They won their division, and were guaranteed to finish fourth, but needed to win today for home court? What?

afaik winning your division only guarantees that you get seeded in the top half of the playoffs. A fifth or sixth seed from another division who has a better record than you will still get home court advantage.
Well what's the use of seeding then if you don't get home court. Dunno, ask Stern.

yeah that doesn't make much sense. if the clippers lost, they wouldve essentially been the 5th seed but still called the 4th seed. but i guess that protects division winners from playing against a #3 if they suck that much. if golden state had a better record than the clippers also, they would still play denver right?